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dissipation seems much more severe to meas in totally gone
not to be redeemed
dissolute still has the hope of soluteness
if you will
once the tart sobers up her dissolution ends
dissipation is an enduring state
or so the distinction goes in my mind
Mod
Dissipated (adj) indulging without restraint in the pursuit of pleasure; debauched.
Dissipation is the noun.
Dissolute (adj) given to dissipation; debauched.
Dissolution is the noun - the state of being dissolute.
Thanks, Debbie (and A. Elizabeth).I couldn't tell if they were synonymous. I've been thinking that maybe "dissipation" occurs in a context of money and "dissolution" in a context of drink or drugs.
Anyhow, I've now got two serviceable words to describe my youth.
So, in the context of one's money, it is preferable to say that person lead a life of "dissipation." It's something one flings away.And if the context involves one's sobriety or conscious life, "dissolution" or "a dissolute life" is the better of the two synonyms. One's mental life has dissolved, or drained off.
Okay, now I think this is getting clearer.
Mod
Tyler.....I don't think my youth was dissipated, but it sure was fun....they say you can't be old and wise unless you have been young and crazy!
In that case, Debbie, I'm headed for a near-Socratic enlightenment. We could have had fun together as young people, with our Abba records and all that seventies stuff.
Mod
Has anyone heard of something called "the natural way of speaking/writing"? It's a term that explains why there really isn't a grammatical reason for something. I can't remember where I read this so can someone point me in the right direction???
Does anyone have a 'rule of thumb' on when to use APEX in place of ACME or vice-versa?Or do they basically mean the same thing???
thanks,
Susanne
Mod
No, seriously. I yield the floor to the distinguished senator from...
I don't know the answer to the natural way of speaking/writing, or the apex/acme question, but I'm interested and I hope someone does.I yield the floor to the esteemed authority of ...
Mod
I used Ruth’s logic to prove to my boss it is correct to write, “If you have any questions, please contact D___ or me.” (He thinks it ought to be "...D___ or I.") Thank you, Ruth.How about this one? Is it more proper to say “a customer of Michael Smith’s” or “a customer of Michael Smith?” What say you, Drs. Grammar?
Also, do you prefer saleable or sellable?
Spot on Debbie! Thanks!I was poking around the Internet and found a like answer to yours...so I suppose I've reached a zenith in this inquiry!
******************************
Question
What's the difference in usage of the words: zenith, acme and apex?
Answer
Zenith literally means 'the point in the sky immediately above your head', but can also mean 'high point' as in 'We have reached the zenith of our success'. 'Acme' is synonym for this secondary meaning - the highest point of achievement. 'Apex' also means 'highest point', but tends to be used most common with physical objects.
Is it more proper to say “a customer of Michael Smith’s” or “a customer of Michael Smith?”It is better to say it the second way because the 's in the first instance doesn't add anything to the meaning.
If you wanted to use the 's as a matter of preference, it's better to think outside the syntax here and switch to "one of Michael Smith's customers."
Thank you, Bunny. I can feast for days on a well placed compliment.
ewwi don't like saleable or sellable
what does either term mean? they are non terms
"for sale" or "to be sold" work much better for me
Here goes: I work for a company that distributes wholesale product. We occasionally receive product that is sub-par and it is my job to decide if the item is saleable/sellable in our outlet store.
for purchasenot for purchase
for consumption
not for consumption
seconds or defective
consumable
not to be touched with a ten foot pole
anything can be sold if someone will pay for it
again i would come down on the side of saleable/sellable are not real words
do not fit the definition so to speak
able is at the heart of this for me
the product is not able
it is fit or unfit
usable or defective
a product or trash
interesting conundrum
has anyone bothered to look it up?
Mod
They are both words one can find in a dictionary. I was thinking more of the style aspect, but perhaps it is silly to be concerned with style on a form to be read by myself and two other persons.
no no please be concerned with stylealways
For all intensive purposes, this phrase is annoying to no end.For all intents and purposes is much easier on the ear.
I also hate the use of I when it should be me.
''...when the stars fall from the sky for you and I.'' GYAAAAAA!
Great Doors song, except for the tremendous lack of respect for the rules of the English language.
It's easy to check yourself when you're not sure. Just take out the other pronoun or proper noun and see if it makes sense.
''...when the stars fall from the sky for I.'' No, that would be 'for me.'
They brought champagne for Tony and I.
Nope! '...for Tony and me.'
Ironically, it's when people are trying to sound smarter than they are that this mistake is most commonly made.
As for split infinitives, I don't really see the problem. And starting a sentence with 'and' is not a no no. But if you're trying to easily teach what a split infinitive is, use the intro to Star Trek:
...on a five-year mission, to boldly go where no man has gone before.
Perhaps the most famous example on the books.
Mod
Mod
Mark -- I agree, the use of the wrong case after a preposition smacks of someone trying to sound too erudite. Why couldn't The Doors have said, "...until the stars fall to the sea/For you and me ..."? I thought I was the only one who shuddered when hearing those words.Somewhere it was said that the avoidance of split infinitives stems from the fact that in other languages, the infinitive is only one word. People have thought by mistake that because it can't be done in Latin or French, it shouldn't be done in English. But I can see no necessary reason why the infinitive shouldn't be split. The determining factor should be whether the sentence sounds better with or without. So I'm all for "to boldy go ..."
Mod
in my own defensebefore i was all knowing i would sometimes default to language that i thought
sounded grammatically correct
hoping i could slip it by the gauntlet of old chastising biddies
i mean language instructors
Have we mentioned the very interesting difference in the meaning of "momentarily" ?When I was a British schoolgirl, our teachers were adamant that "momentarily" meant "for a moment".
In America, if the plane is expected to touch down "momentarily" it means "in a moment" rather than that it will bounce on the runway.
let's hope there's no bouncing ha
Actually, a bounce isn't a bad thing...it lets you know immediately that you have landed!'Go-arounds' bother me more....
Mod
Mod
Debbie,Yes... I am always delighted to hear that the President (no particular one in mind) will speak momentarily.
The warnings about pregnant women bother me."...should not be taken by women who are nursing or pregnant or who become pregnant."
I can't help thinking that it ought to be:
"...should not be taken by women who are nursing or pregnant or who may become pregnant."
well may become includes many more than who become
I see what you mean, Rowena, but I think it means that medication (presumably) should be discontinued should one become pregnant.
my pointwho beome is more accurate
I mistyped in my initial post. No wonder I confused some people.Alas. What I meant to write was
WRONG IMHO "...should not be taken by women who are nursing, pregnant or may become pregnant."
MY CORRECTION
"...should not be taken by women who are nursing, pregnant or WHO may become pregnant."
You know, Rowena? I wondered about that.Thanks for your clarification.
Seriously.
Mark
Hello there, I have a grammar question. Unfortunately, I went to a large public school with an emphasis on math and science. We never learned about grammar except for in our foreign language classes.
I've always wondered about the passive voice. Experts say not to use it as we write, but sometimes there is no other way to get your point across clearly. How would you define Passive Voice? What do you consider acceptable and what do you think should be avoided at all costs?
Thanks a ton,
Elizabeth
Mod
Great topic, Elizabeth.A misleading little short cut has been inculcated (not here) but there are people who believe that every use of the auxiliary verb "was" means that the sentence is passive.
Not so!
Hi Elizabeth --Experts say not to use it as we write, but sometimes there is no other way to get your point across clearly.
Experts are right. Not only do people misuse the passive ("passive" voice means the subject doesn't act, but is acted upon) the way Bunny described, but people also use the passive to mislead or avoid saying anything important:
"Mistakes were made." (Yes, but everyone knows that!) passive
"The president made mistakes." (Much better. The author assigns responsibility as well as stating the obvious.) active
So using the active forces a writer to actually say something instead of cranking out words.
The time to use the passive is when the subject isn't important, or when you want to draw attention to the verb or the object acted on:
"The Olympics were seen worldwide."
The passive voice is correct here because whoever saw the Olympics isn't important; what's important is how they saw them -- worldwide.
"The roses could be seen from the highway."
The passive is correct here because it doesn't matter who saw them. What matters is that they were visible.
For most communication, the subject of the sentence is the most important element to convey. That's why experts want us to avoid the passive voice.
Hi Bunny --I agree. I've also found that the passive voice actually can serve as a tool to focus my attention on what's really important for me to say.
Hang/hanged/hung--help me out here!Let's see:
"They hanged Saddam Hussein", not *"They hung Saddam Hussein."
"They hung the deer carcass in the shed", not *"They hanged the deer carcass in the shed."
"I have hung around bars all my life", not *"I have hanged around bars all my life."
I think one says, "I will be hanged in a fortnight," not "I will be hung in a fortnight."
What's going on here? A shift from strong to weak conjugation? A transitive vs. intransitive contrast? A distinction between hang (on gallows) and hang (in closet)?
IMWTK (Inquiring minds want to know).
Hang1 and Hang2, eh?No hang10, though.
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Language & Grammar
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My question is about the context in which to use each of these two words, because even the examples given in the dictionary don't make the difference between them clear.