Terminalcoffee discussion
Rants / Debates (Serious)
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Question about sexual assault definitions and punishments

I would assume that any person putting their hand in someone else's pants while said person is passed out would be committing a huge no-no.
Then again, I have no idea how this works "legally" and that's what you're asking.



To use the "I was drunk" defense (which is real and those quotation marks are not mocking), the woman would have to be "physically helpless" and would have had to have been unable to consent due to this physical helplessness. The fact that she was able to get up and go to the bathroom kind of trashes that.
If he was forceful, that's a different story.
EDIT Yeah, it's a crime. I was getting my terms mixed up... being drunk in Oregon is a reduced mental capacity. One cannot consent to due impaired mental capacity.
It's a felony sexual assault in Oregon. It would be tough to get a jury conviction.
Also, laws vary by state and the enforcement varies by county.


Well shit.



I know the answer to this but I'm really trying to get an unbiased answer from someone who knows about the law as to whether the scenario I stated is, indeed, sexual assault. I'm pretty sure "attempted fingering" isn't on the books anywhere but what do I know?
The issue is whether she was able to give consent. If she was passed out, she wasn't able to, and it's assault. It doesn't matter whether she went into the bedroom with him, if she immediately passed out, she couldn't give consent.
Whether or not, if charges are brought, they can survive the legal process, is another matter. And yes, it does depend on what state we're talking about.
Whether or not, if charges are brought, they can survive the legal process, is another matter. And yes, it does depend on what state we're talking about.

I can't add any more to this thread that hasn't already been said, and personally I feel the man should have jail time, so I'll just go with that question.

And yes, I agree that charges are more likely than a conviction, because while LG's right and it's a matter of non-consent, it's still very he-said/she-said and hard to prove.



I'm talking about a situation such as this... where the victim and perp are drunk. Let's say PRECISELY equally drunk:
They make out at a party... she goes to the room, he follows, he puts his hand down her pants, she is NOT wearing a tampon and they have sex. Three weeks later, she says she didn't consent because she was drunk. What was he? Was he a consenting adult? They are equally drunk... it's just weird to me.

Yes.. all of this YES!
I think this nicely sums up all of the stuff my mom tried to teach me in high school/college.


There were many that said bad choices were made all around, and several that said there could be a case made against him. I must have skipped past the ones you're talking about.


Here's the thing though, Michele... given the story that Smetchie gave, we aren't privy to what she gave permission for.
We've been told they were kissing. We've been told she went to bed and he followed, but we don't know if that means that he walked behind her down the hall or if he went to the room 10 minutes later. We know that he put his hand down her pants, but we don't know if she was coherent at the time.
What we're running into in this thread is the exact thing that makes prosecuting sex crimes in a "he said/she said" situation so difficult. As I've said before, yes, in Oregon, a sexual assault as defined by law has occured.
Whether this would be able to make it past grand jury to trial and then whether a jury would actually convict is the tricky part.
And no, I'm not blaming the victim. It's a shitty thing to do and leads to someone being victimized more than once, which is a tragedy. However, it is also my experience that assuming every man who has been charged with a sex crime is indeed a creepy sex offender is something that should be avoided as well.
smetchie wrote: "I would also like to distinguish between what is "wrong" and what is "illegal." I understand the woman must have felt she was wronged or she wouldn't be bringing charges. But was there a crime? There is a point where we take it too far and I think that lends to a perception that women can't take care of themselves and need the law to do it for them. I don't appreciate that."
The legal system will decide whether or not a crime happened, regardless of what this woman thinks.
As for whether or not this woman could take care of herself, it seems that she could up to the point that she passed out. The law is protecting the woman who can't take care of herself because she is incapacitated and can't consent to a sexual act.
The legal system will decide whether or not a crime happened, regardless of what this woman thinks.
As for whether or not this woman could take care of herself, it seems that she could up to the point that she passed out. The law is protecting the woman who can't take care of herself because she is incapacitated and can't consent to a sexual act.


I would say that yes this could be considered sexual assault if she was the only one who had drunken enough to have impaired judgment. I don’t think he will be convicted because there is no way to prove that he wasn’t just as drunk as her.



I agree if she's passed out then she can't consent but I don't agree with not being able to consent just because she's drunk. If you're caught drinking and driving or doing any illegal activity while intoxicated do you think you can use the excuse that your judgement is impaired?
Lila wrote: "But if she's passed out then how does she know if or who assaulted her?
I agree if she's passed out then she can't consent but I don't agree with not being able to consent just because she's drunk..."
The man gave his side of what happened to the police, and based on that, they charged him with sexual assault.
If you're speaking purely in hypothetical terms, then if a woman is passed out, she wouldn't necessarily know if she had been assaulted.
Lila, you're conflating two separate instances of drunkenness. In one, a woman is drunk and is sexually assaulted; here, she is the victim. In the second case, a woman (or person) is drunk and drives. Here, she is not a victim, she is a perpetrator. Impaired judgment doesn't enter into the legal calculus in either situation: we're not supposed to blame the woman, once we're in court, for making a bad decision to get drunk, pass out, and be in a position not to be aware of someone assaulting her. The drunk driver, in court, is not excused from punishment because he/she had impaired judgment from being drunk.
I agree if she's passed out then she can't consent but I don't agree with not being able to consent just because she's drunk..."
The man gave his side of what happened to the police, and based on that, they charged him with sexual assault.
If you're speaking purely in hypothetical terms, then if a woman is passed out, she wouldn't necessarily know if she had been assaulted.
Lila, you're conflating two separate instances of drunkenness. In one, a woman is drunk and is sexually assaulted; here, she is the victim. In the second case, a woman (or person) is drunk and drives. Here, she is not a victim, she is a perpetrator. Impaired judgment doesn't enter into the legal calculus in either situation: we're not supposed to blame the woman, once we're in court, for making a bad decision to get drunk, pass out, and be in a position not to be aware of someone assaulting her. The drunk driver, in court, is not excused from punishment because he/she had impaired judgment from being drunk.

(I'm sorry! I'm sorry! Please no hate mail. I don't mean to make light of sexual assault. For some reason I just cannot pass up an opportunity to make a mockery of attempted fingering.)

Somewhere, sometime, someplace in my life, I will find an excuse to use this phrase.


Now, lets put the drunk back in the situation. Were her reaction times slow? Did he just dive right in before she had a chance to tell him no? Who knows. We don't have the details and this is where it gets REALLY sketchy. Without these very important details, NO ONE can pass judgement on either. The he said/she said is a slippery slope. One can only guess intentions and his could have been shitty (some asshat trying to get some while she's drunk) or not (he likes her, thinks she likes him and so far it's consensual)
In Virginia, sexual assault includes "any sexual conduct that a person is forced into without his or her consent" In 7th grade when I tried to get to second base in the back row of the movie theater and she pushed my hand away, I stopped.If she hadn't pushed my hand away and I had succeeded, could she have then 3 days later turned me in to the police?
First base: french kissing
Second base: groping
Third base: oral
Fourth base: fucking
Second base: groping
Third base: oral
Fourth base: fucking

Second is just a lot of feeling up. Doesn't matter how or where.
And third is centered around blowjobs.
And third is centered around blowjobs.
1)a man and woman are at a party drunk and kissing. woman goes into a bedroom to pass out. man follows and gets in bed with her. man puts hand in woman's pants, notices she is wearing a tampon, withdraws hand. woman gets up and goes into the bathroom. man leaves and goes back to the party.
Is that felony sexual assault as far as the legal system is concerned?