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Ask Our Grammar "Experts" II, the Sequel
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Mark
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May 12, 2015 01:21PM

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Afraid that is a bygone expression. The only time it would or should be used is probably in a historical novel.

"Because this word is actually of Greek origin -- not Latin -- the classical plural is octopodes, not octopi. But the standard plural in AmE ..."
You're right about the word having Greek origins, but it entered English through the vehicle of Latin. "Octopus" is a masculine nominative case singular noun. The -us changes to -i to make the masculine nominative plural.
Mrs. C. wrote: "Caroline wrote: "A friend and I were wondering if there are any instances where one would/should use "whilst" rather than "while"."
Afraid that is a bygone expression. The only time it would or s..."
Sheesh, I use it all the time.
Afraid that is a bygone expression. The only time it would or s..."
Sheesh, I use it all the time.

Caroline, I have noticed this same thing. If someone's pet dies, and you say, "I'm sorry," the other person often replies in a surly way, "Well, it's not YOUR fault." I sometimes think it's just the flip society we live in. It's just hard for people to say "thank you" sometimes. I guess one could do better by uttering the whole phrase, "I'm sorry to hear that." The familiar "I'm sorry for your loss" has become pretty standard, it seems, but that sounds canned when speaking to a good friend. It's hard to divorce language from culture, isn't it?

Thanks for the response, Mark. I do believe you're right!
Does no one have an opinion on question 1?"
Regarding #1, I believe we would consider "be" a linking verb here because it is linking the subject to a prepositional phrase telling location. It would be a state of being verb if was actually connecting to a word showing "state" or "condition," such as, "I was sick." Location and condition are two different things, but it is splitting hairs, isn't it?
Mrs. C. wrote: "The familiar "I'm sorry for your loss" has become pretty standard, it seems, "..."
You just hit a pet peeve. Not only does it seem canned, it doesn't make sense. You're sorry for the person, not the loss.
You just hit a pet peeve. Not only does it seem canned, it doesn't make sense. You're sorry for the person, not the loss.

I know that the apostrophe goes after the "s" when an "s" has been added to make a noun plural. I know that an apostrophe 's' is added to a singular noun to show possession. But since "people" is plural already, I went with putting the apostrophe BEFORE the "s."
Do you all concur that that is correct?

(The trick is to forget what the last letter is, and just the apostrophe after the noun, whether it be singular or plural.)


The oddity with "deer" is that the plural is the same as the singular, with no final s. Thus:
The deer's red color.
Those deer's red color.
The reader needs other clues to know whether the first refers to one deer or more.
I'm reading a draft fiction story for a friend and came across this sentence:
What say, I fix us a little dinner and then you can stay here in the main house tonight.
I want her to omit the comma. "What say" just isn't an introductory phrase IMHO. Agree?
What say, I fix us a little dinner and then you can stay here in the main house tonight.
I want her to omit the comma. "What say" just isn't an introductory phrase IMHO. Agree?

What say, I fix us a little dinner and then you can stay here in the main house tonight.
I want her to omit the comm..."
What say is a request, a phrase if you will asking for approval. I would like to spend the night in the main house merely in exchange for agreeing to do so. There is still the stipulation that it's only a contract if (she) fixes dinner. Throw the whole sentence out.
Andrea wrote: "I dont think you need to throw out the sentence. It's dialogue, in vernacular, right?"
Agree.
Agree.
The sentence stayed and the comma went, or such was my recommendation to the author.
Speaking of commas, I suggested she fix many comma splices. However, for one reason or another I didn't object to all of them. Has anyone seen a reasoned argument about when to keep (or use) and when to avoid comma splices? Or, do most rationales come down to an "I know it when I see it" argument?
The context is fiction. The splices occur both in narrative and dialogue sentences.
Speaking of commas, I suggested she fix many comma splices. However, for one reason or another I didn't object to all of them. Has anyone seen a reasoned argument about when to keep (or use) and when to avoid comma splices? Or, do most rationales come down to an "I know it when I see it" argument?
The context is fiction. The splices occur both in narrative and dialogue sentences.

Maybe saying throw it out was a little harsh but I had other points of contention with the construction. First, I must warn, I am not degreed. Yes, it is vernacular and people do construct a lot of oral language that is incorrect but shows up when written and can be studied a minute. Consider that people say similar things like "I fix us" which is problematic but aside from that, we have three unrelated subjects in one sentence mysteriously connected by "and" (and maybe a comma). In the coloquial the speaker would probably make two shorter sentences. I could be wrong. It's only fiction writing. I'm always happy to respond with a thought or two. :) :)

Then again... each character has a cadence when speaking that can be represented by the writer in whatever method works best for them... provided it doesn't annoy the readers too much.

Then again... each character has a cadence when speaking that ..."
Agreed. Some of the best fiction is coloquial. It has intrinsic personality beyond word definitions.
Stephen wrote: "I didn't comment before but I'm a big fan of the ellipsis in dialogue. Not as a replacement to a comma, but as a pause for thought.
Then again... each character has a cadence when speaking that ..."
But the ellipsis doesn't indicate a pause. It indicates that some words have been left out of the sentence. For pauses, we have commas and periods.
Then again... each character has a cadence when speaking that ..."
But the ellipsis doesn't indicate a pause. It indicates that some words have been left out of the sentence. For pauses, we have commas and periods.
According to my guidebook, the ellipsis has two purposes:
1. To show omitted words.
2. To show a pause.
1. To show omitted words.
2. To show a pause.

I often encounter the following problem while talking to people. When they speak, they actually insert the pause and extra words instead of completeing a sentence and starting another one. It can also be a sequence mistake.
In that case, it isn't words left out but a pause and extra or repeated words inserted. If we want to put that cadence on paper, the ellipes warns us of it while we read.
Ie: Little Joe's puppy... when he does... his tricks... they are funny,,, like jumping... and Joe... I mean... Little Joe... takes him... and puts him up... unless he jumps... so he can do them... on the coffee table... makes me laugh.
Here is the same sentence with the extra words removed:
Little Joe's puppy, when he does his tricks are funny like jumping and Little Joe puts him up so he can do them on the coffee table, makes me laugh.
i find this extra word insertion with ellipse idea useful in poetry because I am not bound by every grammar rule in verse.

I was watching a documentary on the battle of Jutland and the narrator was describing the British casualties and said something like "... three battle cruisers had exploded and sank."
When I heard that, it felt awkwardly phrased and I mentally wanted to correct it to "... three battle cruisers had exploded and sunk."
I'm guessing that the real error here was the incorrect use of the pluperfect form of the first verb. I'd have been perfectly happy to hear "... three battle cruisers exploded and sank" but, once the pluperfect tense was invoked for the first verb I expected the tense to continue to the second verb and sort of assumed and implied the had in front of the second verb.
I know that I'm picking nits here, but what exactly is correct in this type of sentence structure? If two verbs are present, shouldn't their tenses be the same?
Unless this is another British thumb of the nose (the war over grammar, you know), I'd say you are right. SUNK!

I was watching a documentary on the battle of Jutland and the narrator was describing the British casualties and said something like "... three battle c..."
Good question, Stephen. I think the author was wrong because the condition of the verbs can be different merely because of the way their tenses are spelled.
My opinion is that it revolves not around the tense carring over (which I think it normally would) but the condition or type of verbs that are connected with "and" because of the spelling of the tense. After all, "and" can connect all sorts of things alike or different. So the modifier "had" needed to be repeated. Looking forward to hearing other remarks.
Bryan Garner, in Garner's Modern American Usage, agrees, saying American editors prefer "afterward" even though readers will often see them used interchangeably.

e.g. alterable is a word but enterable is not. In this computer age I seem to always be talking about "enterable" fields so I just added it to my dictionary. Lately it seems that I'm adding a word a day.

e.g. alterable is a word but enterable is not. In this comput..."
Oddly my dictionary just entered "alterable" which car guys have been using for at least 50 years. You change out an engine or you alter the one you got if it is alterable. Also odd is the example they used; "alter my will". You can't alter your will. It is always your will whatever it is. If it means a document then I asume altering would mean you print it in a different color ink or some such. It will always be your will regardless of what it says. You could change it into a "trust". You could change the document or the conditions of your will or correct a mispelling. That's my opinion and my name is not Webster whom may have a different opinion.


Consider this scientifically. How many up downs fores or other directions and positions can there be? actually any number in the theory of relativity but we don't live there. So I use physical relationship or position. Therefore the reason for adding an s has to be due to a plural modifier. ie: removing power stops wheels forward movement. (one direction) Ie: alkali in the water poisoned the wolves insides.(many insides) ie: meteors fell on the slopes upwards from the beach (various distances). The plane crashed upward of the beach (a single place). ie: They had marched forewards (indefinite number of marches indicated). He marched foreward (one march or location assumed). This is the rule I made up and use. Without a plural reason I go without the s.

My understanding is it's a pick 'em. Garner claims that, for the past participle, American English prefers waked and British English woken. Oddly, in your example sentence, I, too, prefer "woken," though I think the writer is OK with "waked."


btw.. the story was set in Oklahoma so no bifurcated lorries or dual-carriageways involved.
It seems Americans and Brits alike prefer "would have woken." Next thing you know, we'll be inviting Cornwallis back.
Books mentioned in this topic
Eats, Shoots & Leaves: Why, Commas Really Do Make a Difference! (other topics)Garner's Modern American Usage (other topics)
Garner's Modern American Usage (other topics)
Translations (other topics)
Garner's Modern American Usage (other topics)
More...
Authors mentioned in this topic
Derrick McClain (other topics)Charlie David (other topics)
Ambrose Bierce (other topics)
Brian Friel (other topics)