Harry on my mind….

[image error]So, I think a while back I mentioned that after seeing Deathly Hallows Part 1, I wanted to re-read all the books. Well, being a freakish little Type A kinda gal, I did that, and I have to say I'm still a big fan of the re-read, especially of these books that are so rife with detail and story threads that are set up in an early book and played out in a later one. (Bravo, JKR!).

The problem, of course, is that little things stand out at you. Now, I accept the fact that I get that "oh, damn, how did that happen" feeling in my stomach when I run across a continuity error in my own books, and I have a personal rule about not reviewing books online because, well, just because. But since the Harry Potter books are essentially iconic, I'm going to bend my own rule, point out something I noticed, and ask any other Harry fans to explain what I see as a continuity error. Did I mis-read? Did I misunderstand? Or did something get past JKR and her copyeditor?

Here's my question (and it's rife with spoilers for Book 7): In Goblet of Fire, Mad Eye Moody (or, at least, his magical eye) sees Harry beneath his cloak, and he tells Harry that, yes, the eye can see under invisibility cloaks. So far so good.[image error]

Then we get to Book 7 and we learn that Harry's particular cloak is actually one of the deathly hallows, and it is THE true invisibility cloak that no one can see under, not even Death.

But Mad Eye's eye can?

What's up with that?

(And, yes, I'm on deadline. And, yes, my brain is fried. But I don't get it. And so I'm putting it out there to the collective wisdom of the universe. Or the blogisphere. Or this blog's readers…. Ideas anyone?)