Infinite Regress
In reference to the Scholastic argument about an uncaused first cause, I have it claimed that infinite regression (while it may offend the laws of physics) does not violate the laws of logic.
Actually, infinite regress does violate the laws of logic, on the grounds that it postulates, first, that every cause in the chain of cause and effect was set in motion by a prior cause, and then, second that no first cause set the chain of cause and effect in motion.
If it is moving when nothing set it in
Actually, infinite regress does violate the laws of logic, on the grounds that it postulates, first, that every cause in the chain of cause and effect was set in motion by a prior cause, and then, second that no first cause set the chain of cause and effect in motion.
If it is moving when nothing set it in
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