Jane Eyre Jane Eyre question


50 views
Favorite Book of All Time


I believe the intention at the end was that they could now marry as the first wife was now dead and Rochester was reduced by the fire to a physical wreck, which meant he was now more equal to the low station of Jane as governess in the eyes of society. This now freed them to marry. Anyone: correct me if I'm wrong; it was some years ago now that I read it, but this is my recollection.

8962352
Sonal I think they married as the first wife was dead. Even without him getting into accident, she had agreed to marry him - alas the discovery of previous ...more
Nov 12, 2017 08:32AM · flag

Yes, Helen is right. Jane says they had been married ten years now by the time she wrote her autobiography. And they had a son, so there you go. :-P

I think the "sexiest" line occurs during the engagement period, while she's refusing romantic advances from her fiancé. "Mr. Rochester affirmed I was wearing him to skin and bone, and threatened awful vengeance for my present conduct at some period fast coming [...] My task was not an easy one; often I would rather have pleased than teased him" (End of Chapter 24).

Maybe my mind is stuck in the gutter, but I'm not sure what else that "awful vengeance" could be.


Patti wrote: "Someone in the group posed a question regarding sex in this story. I believe there shouldn't have been. It keeps the reader thinking about the real attraction between Jane and Mr. Rochester. Tried ..."

Definitely not between Jane and Rochester before their marriage; though he was having mistresses earlier. Adele was given to him on the pretext of being his child.


back to top