Jane Austen discussion
Book: Pride & Prejudice
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Fitzwilliam Darcy = bas@&$d a@&$hole
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And the second is just a homophone of Darcy.
Both terms were used in Austen's era though more likely in bars and gentlemen's clubs
A modern equivalent would be Aaron Peck (arrogant prick)
oh I see what you are getting at.
I remember now that Fitzjohn is what illegitimate sons of royalty were named.
Interesting point to raise...
but he Is the good guy, so I don't think it means anything! (I hope not anyway!)
I remember now that Fitzjohn is what illegitimate sons of royalty were named.
Interesting point to raise...
but he Is the good guy, so I don't think it means anything! (I hope not anyway!)

I remember now that Fitzjohn is what illegitimate sons of royalty were name
I never knew that, I need to read more about that.

The most cited examples are from Dickens. J.k. Rowling makes extensive use of them.
Here are some interesting links
http://aprendeenlinea.udea.edu.co/rev...
http://books.google.com.au/books?id=Q...
Do you think Austen did this intentionally?
If so, is there a name for such a literary device? Nominative determinism?