The Cyclic Identity for Partial Derivatives

 

As an undergrad I learned a lot about partial derivatives in physics classes. But they told us rules as needed, without proving them. This rule completely freaked me out. If derivatives are kinda like fractions, shouldn’t this equal 1?

Let me show you why it’s -1.

First, consider an example:

This example shows that the identity is not crazy. But in fact it
holds the key to the general proof! Since is a coordinate system we can assume without loss of generality that . At any point w...