10. Why does Twain set the novel in a time before abolition of slavery?

[Jen]

9 Why might Twain have decided to set the novel in a time before the abolition of slavery, despite the fact that he published it in 1885, two decades after the end of the Civil War?

[Lynn]

Possibly Twain felt that slavery, though abolished, still impacted our society. Maybe he felt like the issues related to slavery remained unaddressed.

[John]

It allowed Twain to set in starkest terms the problems of conscience when society's norms and standards are revealed to be untenable.

[Kristel]

I think it was his way of speaking out against the racism that continued to exist even though slavery had been abolished.