I have read several evaluations that state that the man is unlikely to have perpetrated the reported acts of abuse because he is not mentally ill or because he doesn’t show signs of aggressiveness in the evaluator’s office. (On this erroneous basis, most abusive men could be declared to be victims of false accusations.) Unfortunately, many psychologists who take court appointments have been slow to accept that their standard array of theories and tests can lead to serious errors when applied to domestic-abuse cases.
How long ago? Again, I feel that the current daily court system is much more keen than this!
