It may be just or wise or expedient for Negro children to attend the same schools as white children, but they do not have a civil right to do so which is protected by the federal constitution, or which is enforceable by the federal government.
But "The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution nor prohibited by it to the States are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people." Wouldn't this mean that it's possible for a right to education to exist reserved to the people (and thus that segregated schools are an example of the State overreaching its jurisdiction?)
