THE QUESTION is so important that I am going briefly to repeat the point: when we compare a sacred revelation that the Gospels regard as false, mythical, satanic, to the sacred revelation that they regard as true, we can see no significant discrepancy. In both cases we are dealing with mimetic cycles, all of which end with scapegoats and resurrections. So what allows Christianity to define pagan religions as satanic or diabolic but to exclude itself from this definition?
