I do not allege that it has been seriously misunderstood. There has in regard to it, been in every age, a remarkable unity of opinion. But that by Biblical Interpreters generally, it has not been properly estimated, is to me most evident. Some of our most popular divines speak of it as "obscurely intimating a Saviour;" others as "giving faint intimations of the divine goodness;" and even those who have attributed to it the highest importance, have not felt its full force and magnitude. Did it indeed, but "obscurely hint" a Saviour? Did it give forth of him "faintintimations" only? It was in
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Neglect by exegetes in interpreting Genesis 3:15 that argue for only a “faint allusion” to the Messiah in the text.
