The most often repeated argument against viewing this passage as speaking of the Christ as “God” is that Paul nowhere else refers to the Lord in that way. But such is a circular argument, for not only can one refer to Titus 2:13 (see below) where Paul does this very thing, but would it be a valid argument against Titus 2:13 to likewise say that Paul doesn’t call Jesus “God” elsewhere? Seemingly the person offering this argument is not so much seeking to interpret the passage as to substantiate a particular theology.
