John tells us that no one has seen God at any time. Is this true? Are there not many instances of men seeing God in the Old Testament? Did not Isaiah say that he saw the Lord sitting upon His throne in the temple (Isaiah 6:1–3)? So what is John saying? How can we understand his words? The key is found in the final phrases of verse 18, specifically, “who is at the Father’s side.” When John says “no one has seen God at any time,” he is referring to the Father. No man has seen the Father at any time. So how do we have knowledge of the Father? The μονογενής has “made Him known” or “explained
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