As Michael Cook has observed, no one has been able to identify a more proximate intellectual influence on Ibn ʿAbd al-Wahhāb than Ibn Taymiyya and Ibn al-Qayyim.
When Salafis, who are readily identified by relying on the works of Ibn Abdul Wahhab, who in turn relied almost exclusively on Ibn Taymiyyah and Ibnul Qayyim, neither of whom are from the time of the Salaf, then how does their "ascription to the Salaf" actually connect them?
