It occurs in the past tense as a reference to the Exodus. But even more damning for the establishment of any parallel between "my son" in Hosea and "my son" in Matthew is the unflattering attributions to "my son" Israel in the original passage. Did Jesus flee from God? Did he sacrifice to the Baals and burn incense to images? Matthew was clearly grasping at straws. His credibility, not to mention his status as a divinely inspired author, should be roundly challenged. Let's call a spade a spade.
