Lusra’s answer to “Why is the Spanish version 544 pages and the English version is only 382?” > Likes and Comments
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Thank you! That's an interesting tidbit I haven't heard about before :)
That is not true. English has almost no flexion, and Spanish and other Roman languages use flexion in pronouns, substantives and verbs. In English you say "I speak, We speak, You speak" where Spanish just "Hablo, hablamos, habláis" without pronoun, or where english says "I would speak" or "I will go" Spanish says "Hablaría" (hablar = speak, -ía = Me + would) and "Iré" (ir = go, -é = Me + will). English is the most analytic language in Europe, as other Indoeuropean languages are all more or less synthetic.
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Emily
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Apr 25, 2017 04:09PM
Thank you! That's an interesting tidbit I haven't heard about before :)
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That is not true. English has almost no flexion, and Spanish and other Roman languages use flexion in pronouns, substantives and verbs. In English you say "I speak, We speak, You speak" where Spanish just "Hablo, hablamos, habláis" without pronoun, or where english says "I would speak" or "I will go" Spanish says "Hablaría" (hablar = speak, -ía = Me + would) and "Iré" (ir = go, -é = Me + will). English is the most analytic language in Europe, as other Indoeuropean languages are all more or less synthetic.
