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Question about divorce (Piper's "new radical obedience")

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message 1: by Mark (last edited Jan 09, 2009 07:19PM) (new) - rated it 5 stars

Mark I loved the book. My question I would like to discuss is on Piper's chapters on divorce: "a new radical obedience." Piper's reasoning behind his idea that a person should only get a divorce when Christ divorces the church comes from Matthew 19:9 which has the "exception" clause, that anyone who divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another, commits adultery. He says that the word "immorality" (moichatai) connotates someone who is not married, but betrothed (like Mary was to Joseph) and thus it implies that no one should ever divorce after they are married. I looked up "moichatai" in Thayer's lexicon and found that it actually has the connotation of adultery, even describing adulterous Israel in relation to Yahweh in the OT. To me, this doesn't seem to agree with Piper's point.
The main reason I want to learn more about this is because where I land on this issue will change the discussions I have with some of my divorced friends. Any thoughts?

message 2: by Tami (new) - added it

Tami Myer Mark, "moicheia" is not the word used in Matt. 19:9; the word is "porneia." That is precisely Piper's point: Matthew used the word for immorality which would include immorality among unmarried or betrothed persons instead of the more specific word used for adultery. Only Matthew's gospel--the one addressed to Jewish people, who practiced betrothal--includes this "exception" clause.

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