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The Unmade Bed: The Messy Truth about Men and Women in the 21st Century
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The Unmade Bed > Mansplaining

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message 1: by SCPL (last edited Jun 07, 2017 07:07AM) (new) - added it

SCPL (st_catharines_public_library) | 542 comments Mod
The term “mansplaining” has been around for about 10 years, and was coined by journalist Rebecca Solnit. A basic definition of mansplaining is: when a man explains something to someone (typically a woman) in a manner regarded as condescending or patronizing. Interestingly enough, Stephen Marche chooses to begin this book by essentially mansplaining the concept of mansplaining.

Before reading this book, were you familiar with mansplaining? Have you ever found yourself on the receiving end of a “mansplanation”? For more on mansplaining, click here:

I do think Stephen Marche makes some valid points to differentiate between “mansplaining” and men simply expressing themselves. Would you agree or disagree? It’s true that there are some “mansplainers” out there, but then, isn’t the “strong silent type” generally regarded as the ideal state of masculinity? Talking about feelings and expressing emotions are usually, stereotypically, things that aren’t considered to be particularly “manly”.

On page 9, Marche says, “not explaining is always more powerful than explaining” and “men don’t make women voiceless and thus powerless; men make themselves voiceless and thus powerful”. Do you agree or disagree? Why?

Lillian (ladylil) I have heard the term "mansplaining" before, and I have experienced it as well, but before it had a name. I think mansplaining is a similar phenomenon to overconfidence/over compensating, when in fact they know little about the topic at hand and need to make themselves feel better about whatever is at question.

I hope that makes sense?

message 3: by SCPL (new) - added it

SCPL (st_catharines_public_library) | 542 comments Mod
Hi Lillian! Thank you for your comment. It definitely makes sense, and I think that overcompensating does play a big part in mansplaining. I do have to wonder if it's just that the mansplainer doesn't know a lot about the topic himself, or if part of it is that (perhaps unconsciously) he is intimidated by the fact that a woman knows more than him about the topic at hand?

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