In my mind I can just hear some readers screaming: “Argument from silence!” But arguments from silence have plausibility value to the extent that you expect the sources in questions not to be silent on the matter at hand. Perhaps some of these texts could be explained in that the author simply chose not to include Mary as an example, or was speaking strictly of those assumed to heaven without an intervening death, or simply wasn’t aware of the oral tradition. But all of them? If Mary was as important in the early church as she is in Roman Catholic theology, is it really plausible that so many
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