Mark Henrikson's Blog - Posts Tagged "writing-style-question"
Question About Style
I am going to try something a little different this week and throw a discussion topic out for comment.
I have received some critical comments on the first 2 books in the Origins series about ‘modern’ language used by aliens and humans in the past that rehash discussions/debates I had with quite a few people before publication. The question is: Specific to science fiction and historical fiction, is it acceptable to use modern phrasing for aliens and humans in the past? (I’m talking mild stuff like calling someone a dick as an insult, not someone walking up to another saying ‘sup homie, what it is yo’)
My position is YES it is acceptable. Technically aliens are talking in their own language so they are actually saying ep-op-orc-ahah with some squeaks and whistles thrown in. The reader is reading the author’s translation, and the author making that translation into common language for the reader is not only acceptable, but preferable by most.
(On a related topic, I also took some flak for aliens equating having balls with being brave/manly. My thought here is that’s a very basic concept in nature and all animals. Dogs mount each other to show dominance. All pack animals (primates, jungle cats, etc.) yield to the Alpha in the group and let him have the females. The peacock who displays the largest spread of tail feathers gets the females. I might be wrong, but I took this reference to be pretty universal in nature and have no problem envisioning alien races attributing similar masculine value to their reproductive organs. I digress though, so back to the question at hand).
If you are writing about Victorian England, then the speech patterns of the characters would be filled with herin, thereof, thou shalt, and so on. Have you tried reading Pride and Prejudice or War and Peace lately? They are fine novels, but the language turns today’s readers off. The same with Shakespeare, much of his work are masterpieces yet few actually read it outside of school assignments because of the language, which is period accurate.
Again, I contend that the author translating the period language into more modern phrasing (again, within reason) for the benefit of the reader’s enjoyment is acceptable. What are your thoughts on the topic?
I have received some critical comments on the first 2 books in the Origins series about ‘modern’ language used by aliens and humans in the past that rehash discussions/debates I had with quite a few people before publication. The question is: Specific to science fiction and historical fiction, is it acceptable to use modern phrasing for aliens and humans in the past? (I’m talking mild stuff like calling someone a dick as an insult, not someone walking up to another saying ‘sup homie, what it is yo’)
My position is YES it is acceptable. Technically aliens are talking in their own language so they are actually saying ep-op-orc-ahah with some squeaks and whistles thrown in. The reader is reading the author’s translation, and the author making that translation into common language for the reader is not only acceptable, but preferable by most.
(On a related topic, I also took some flak for aliens equating having balls with being brave/manly. My thought here is that’s a very basic concept in nature and all animals. Dogs mount each other to show dominance. All pack animals (primates, jungle cats, etc.) yield to the Alpha in the group and let him have the females. The peacock who displays the largest spread of tail feathers gets the females. I might be wrong, but I took this reference to be pretty universal in nature and have no problem envisioning alien races attributing similar masculine value to their reproductive organs. I digress though, so back to the question at hand).
If you are writing about Victorian England, then the speech patterns of the characters would be filled with herin, thereof, thou shalt, and so on. Have you tried reading Pride and Prejudice or War and Peace lately? They are fine novels, but the language turns today’s readers off. The same with Shakespeare, much of his work are masterpieces yet few actually read it outside of school assignments because of the language, which is period accurate.
Again, I contend that the author translating the period language into more modern phrasing (again, within reason) for the benefit of the reader’s enjoyment is acceptable. What are your thoughts on the topic?
Published on April 30, 2013 08:21
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Tags:
writing-style-question


